Virus Quiz : Test your knowledge

Virus Quiz – Set 8 (UPSC Prelims Level)

Choose the correct option for each question. Click “Show Answer” to reveal and hide it again.

1. Which of the following best describes a “viral genome segment”? (as in segmented viruses)

  1. A portion of host DNA accidentally packaged into the virion.
  2. A separate nucleic acid molecule that encodes part of the viral genetic information.
  3. A protein fragment cleaved from the viral capsid.
  4. A piece of RNA that cannot be replicated.
Correct answer: B – In segmented viruses (e.g., influenza), the genome is divided into multiple nucleic acid segments, each carrying part of the viral genetic information.

2. With reference to “herd immunity threshold” (HIT) for a viral disease, which of the following is correct?

  1. HIT increases as the basic reproduction number (R₀) increases.
  2. HIT is independent of the efficacy of the vaccine used.
  3. HIT is always 50% of the population irrespective of the virus.
  4. HIT is lower for viruses with higher R₀.
Correct answer: A – The higher the R₀, the larger the fraction of immune individuals needed to interrupt transmission; vaccine efficacy also affects practical thresholds.

3. Which of the following statements about “oncoviruses” is/are correct?

  1. They are viruses associated with the development of cancers in humans or animals.
  2. All oncoviruses are retroviruses.
  3. Some oncoviruses can be prevented by vaccination, thereby reducing cancer risk.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: C – 1 and 3 only. Oncoviruses include DNA and RNA viruses (e.g., HPV, HBV); vaccines against some (HPV, HBV) help reduce cancer incidence.

4. In many viral infections, “antigenic stability” is advantageous for vaccine design because:

  1. It means the virus cannot infect more than one species.
  2. It ensures that viral antigens do not change rapidly, so vaccines remain effective for longer periods.
  3. It guarantees that the virus is non-pathogenic.
  4. It implies that the virus cannot replicate in humans.
Correct answer: B – Stable antigens reduce the need for frequent vaccine updates, as seen with some long-standing effective viral vaccines.

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for “super-spreader events” in viral epidemics?

  1. Events where viruses replicate only inside laboratory cultures.
  2. Situations in which a small number of infected individuals infect a disproportionately large number of secondary cases.
  3. Events that only involve vector-borne transmission.
  4. Incidents where the virus is transmitted solely by contaminated food.
Correct answer: B – Super-spreader events significantly amplify transmission when a few individuals cause many secondary infections, often due to setting, behavior, or biology.

6. With reference to “Re” (effective reproduction number), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Re takes into account the proportion of the population that is immune.
  2. Re may change over time as interventions are introduced.
  3. If Re is maintained below 1 for a sufficient period, the outbreak tends to decline.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: D – 1, 2 and 3. Re reflects real-time transmissibility and is influenced by immunity levels and control measures; keeping it below 1 shrinks the epidemic.

7. In the context of virus–host interaction, “species barrier” refers to:

  1. The physical barrier of skin that always prevents viral entry.
  2. Genetic and biological differences that limit a virus’s ability to infect different species.
  3. The legal restriction on movement of animals between countries.
  4. The effect of antiviral drugs on viral replication.
Correct answer: B – The species barrier reflects host–virus compatibility constraints, which can occasionally be crossed in zoonotic spillovers.

8. In a vaccine trial against a viral disease, “vaccine efficacy” of 80% most appropriately means:

  1. 80% of vaccinated individuals will never be infected in their lifetime.
  2. There is an 80% reduction in disease among vaccinated people compared with unvaccinated people under trial conditions.
  3. 80% of the virus is killed in laboratory culture by the vaccine.
  4. 20% of vaccinated people will definitely get severe disease.
Correct answer: B – Efficacy is a relative reduction in disease (or infection) incidence in the vaccinated group compared with controls under trial conditions.

9. With reference to “mucosal immunity” in viral infections, which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Secretory IgA plays a key role in protection at mucosal surfaces.
  2. Mucosal immunity is especially important for viruses entering via respiratory or gastrointestinal tracts.
  3. Systemic IgG antibodies are the only important component of mucosal defence.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: B – 1 and 2 only. Secretory IgA and local immune responses are crucial at mucosal entry sites; IgG contributes but is not the sole or “only” component.

10. For a virus predominantly spread by contaminated water, the most direct long-term public health intervention to interrupt transmission is:

  1. Mass distribution of insecticide-treated nets.
  2. Improvement of water supply, sanitation, and safe sewage disposal.
  3. Exclusive focus on antiviral drug prophylaxis.
  4. Restriction of all international air travel.
Correct answer: B – For faeco-orally transmitted viruses, sustained improvements in water, sanitation, and hygiene are crucial to breaking transmission chains.

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